I know that most people who have herpes are without symptoms. If you have “dormant” genital herpes, will it still show up in a blood test?

Let’s say you’ve been married for ten years. You have an abnormal pap smear, which is attributed to HPV (no warts involved). Could the infection have possibly been contracted more than ten + years ago?

my gf of many years is a carrier of genital herpes, I am carrier with no symptoms and got it from her but in the last year every time we have sexual intercourse or oral even she gets an outbreak… never had more than two a year before but now its every time, anyone tell me why? please!

I had a one night stand and at the time I didn’t know i had hpv (genital warts). Months later my first breakout appeared. My question is, could the person that I came in contact get genital warts, even though the warts were dormant in my system at the time?

Can you get an STD from someone you have sex with that show no visible signs of the disease? Or is the disease only spread when visible outbreaks occur? Looking for factual evidence.
ok knowing that can someone get tested and actually have it but the test comes up negative?

Someone I know wants to have sex with me, but they’re concern is that I have STD’s. I offered to get tested, but they said that thats not good enough because it’s possible for the disease or virus to become “dormant” and not show up on a test.

I believe that this is nonsense. I’ve always been told that the ONLY way to be sure you are infected is if you get tested.

Am I right or wrong? If possible, please cite your sources. Thanks.

I’m not sure if I am pregnant or not, but I do know that I have the HPV virus. If I am pregnant, could the hormones and weaker immune system cause the virus to become active?

I’ve been with my husband for 12yrs. And have 4 children with and as far as I knew he has also been faithful. Just been told I have the hpv without the warts. Can it be dormant for all those years? Would it have shown during any of my pregnacy’s or my yearly pap smears? Does he now have to make a doctor’s app.?

My wife and I have been married for 32 years; I am 58, she is 56. I have been completely faithful during the 32 years and she says she has as well. I want to believe her and there is no reason why I should not.. Unfortunately, our relationship has been dealt a serious blow; she recently developed genital herpes. She claims it is impossible because she has never been sexual with another man. Could there be another explanation? She has been such a trustworthy and honorable person during our time together.

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I recently just got diagnosed with genital warts and instead of getting better there getting worse. Can someone please just give me info or past experience that you know of.